Hypothetical situation:
An old man and his wife die. It is not clear who inherits their home but they are survived by two sons, who we'll call Hank and Dean. Dean is a CPA and assumed to be a fairly regular joe based on holding down a career. This is in contrast to Hank, who continues to live in the basement of the parents' home (maybe he moved upstairs, I guess).
While the parents were alive, Hank was a Boo Radley, rumored to be a severe alcoholic. No longer living like a basement troll has given evidence that Hank has a drug problem - numerous police visits to the house for things like "terroristic threatening", "fraud" and "larceny"; cars showing up at 2a with super loud music blasting, Hank walks out to talk to someone in the driver's seat for a minute, then car leaves; the house and vehicles falling into disrepair. The police are there again tonight, for the fourth time in about three months.
The house is still listed as being owned by the estate of the parents with Dean as the executor of the estate. Generally speaking, does Dean have any exposure or liability for Hank's actions at the house? If Hank and Dean inherited the house 50/50 but Hank lives there and Dean has his own residence, does that affect the answer?
The house is within 1000 feet of a school, so if Hank is selling drugs including pills it's a class D felony in our fair commonwealth.
